Proof:

We shall show that if $ g\cdot y = y$ for some $ y \in Y$ and $ g\in G$ then $ g = 1$. If $ g \neq 1$, choose a neighborhood $ U$ of $ y$ as in definition (20.1) which in particular implies $ g\cdot U\cap U = \emptyset$. But $ y \in g\cdot U\cap U$ and we get a contradiction.

The set of all orbits of the action with its quotient topology is denoted by $ Y/G$ and the following theorem expresses the covering properties of the quotient map

$\displaystyle \eta : Y \longrightarrow Y/G.
$

Note that for each $ g\in G$, the map $ y \mapsto g\cdot y$ is a bijective map. If each of these maps is a homeomorphism of $ Y$ onto itself, we say that $ G$ acts as a group of homeomorphisms on $ Y$.

nisha 2012-03-20