Proof:

Suppose $ \gamma_1$ and $ \gamma_2$ are two loops at $ 1$ with lifts $ {\tilde \gamma}_1,
{\tilde\gamma}_2$ starting at origin. Then the path $ \tilde{\gamma}$ given by $ \tilde{\gamma}(t) = \tilde{\gamma_1}(t) + \tilde{\gamma_2}(t)$ also starts at the origin and satisfies

   ex$\displaystyle \;{\tilde \gamma}(t) =$   ex$\displaystyle \;{\tilde \gamma_1}(t) \cdot$   ex$\displaystyle \;{\tilde\gamma_2}(t)
= \gamma_1(t) \cdot \gamma_2(t).
$

Hence $ \tilde{\gamma}$ is the unique lift of $ \gamma_1(t)\cdot\gamma_2(t)$ whereby,

   deg$\displaystyle (\gamma_1(t) \gamma_2(t)) = {\tilde\gamma}(1)
= {\tilde\gamma_1}(1) + {\tilde\gamma_2}(1)
=$   deg$\displaystyle \;{\gamma_1} +$   deg$\displaystyle \;{\gamma_2}.
$

Thus $ \phi( [\gamma_1 \cdot \gamma_2]) = \phi([\gamma_1]) + \phi ([\gamma_2])$. From corollary (12.2), $ [\gamma_1 \cdot \gamma_2] = [ \gamma_1 \ast \gamma_2]= [\gamma_1][\gamma_2]$ whence $ \phi([\gamma_1][\gamma_2]) = \phi([\gamma_1])+ \phi( [ \gamma_2])$ which means that $ \phi$ is a group homomorphism.

Surjectivity of $ \phi$ is easy to see. Let $ n \in \mathbb{Z}$ be arbitrary and $ {\tilde \gamma}(t) = nt.$ Then $ {\tilde\gamma}$ is the unique lift of $ \gamma(t) =$   ex$ {\tilde\gamma}(t)$ starting at the origin so that $ \phi([\gamma]) = {\tilde\gamma}(1) = n$. We now show that the group homomorphism $ \phi$ is injective. Suppose $ \gamma_1,\gamma_2$ are two loops at $ 1$ in $ S^1$ such that deg $ \;\gamma_1$ = deg $ \;\gamma_2$. Then $ {\tilde\gamma_1}(1) = {\tilde \gamma_2}(1)$, where $ {\tilde\gamma_1}$ and $ {\tilde\gamma_2}$ are the lifts of $ \gamma_1$ and $ \gamma_2$ starting at the origin. Since $ \mathbb{R}$ is convex and the two curves $ \tilde{\gamma}_1$ and $ \tilde{\gamma}_2$ have common end points, they are homotopic. That is to say, there exists a continuous function $ {\tilde F} : I \times I \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that

$\displaystyle {\tilde F}(0,t)$ $\displaystyle =$ $\displaystyle \tilde{\gamma_1}(t),\quad \tilde{F}(1,t) = \tilde{\gamma_2}(t);$ for all $\displaystyle t \in [0, 1]$  
$\displaystyle \tilde{F}(s,0)$ $\displaystyle =$ $\displaystyle 0, \quad\tilde{F}(s,1) = \tilde{\gamma_1}(1) = \tilde{\gamma_2}(1),$ for all $\displaystyle s \in [0, 1].$  

The function $ F:[0, 1]\times [0, 1]$ given by

$\displaystyle F(s,t)=$   ex$\displaystyle \tilde{F}(s,t)
$

is then a homotopy between $ \gamma_1$ and $ \gamma_2$ and we have shown that $ \deg \gamma_1= \deg \gamma_2$ implies $ [\gamma_1]= [ \gamma_2]$. This suffices for a proof.
nisha 2012-03-20